Is it just me, or does the "second article" have a fatal flaw?
It accuses Trump of "obstruction of Congress" for refusing to comply with the House's "subpoenas". But if I understand the process properly (always a major chance I don't), they never issued any subpoenas, only "letters of request", which have no legal ramifications for a failure to comply.
I thought the House had to have a vote to open an official "Impeachment Inquiry" in order to gain subpoena power. They skipped that step, since it would have come along with at least some due process for Trump, so they went directly from committee investigation to a vote on the articles without the House ever voting to open an official investigation.
For months now, the Democrats and the media have been conflating the terms "letter of request", and "subpoena", but in this case, isn't it the crux of the biscuit?
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